Baab ( DOOR )

QUESTION 1

I would please like to know more about the word "Bab" found in the Qur'an, i.e. it's meaning and significance. Also, is the Door of the Ka'ba called the Bab? Is there a mystical significance in this?

ANSWER 1

Wa Alaikum As-Salaam,

I found the word Bab and its plural Abwaab mentioned in the Quran 27 times. In most instances, it refers to the proper way of entering into a place with permission (2:58); a place of destiny (40:76) and a passage of blessings (39:73).

Symbolically, a bab is the proper way to reach you desired destination. For example, in the famous tradition of the Holy Prophet (S) he said: "I am the city of knowledge and Ali is its gate (Bab)." Meaning that if you would like to acquire the Prophet's knowledge, the proper way is through Imam Ali (AS). It also implies that to attempt to acquire by another means would be improper. In the past, people have been referred to as the "Bab" meaning that people could find guidance through them (although it was seldom the
case though).

The door of the Ka'bah is known as the Bab just as every other door is in Arabic.

If you have some specific examples, perhaps I can give more detailed explanation.

Was-Salaam.

Ali Rasheed

QUESTION 1

It is only now that I realise the truly harmful effects of backbiting. I know want to do istighfar, but, I do not remeber all the people that I have spoken about, or they have moved away, etc. I once heard in a maj'lis that there are some tasbihs that you can recite and pray that the sawaab of these go to the slandered, please can you give me more information on this

ANSWER 1

The first step of Isteghfar is to resolve never to commit the sin again. Then you have to, in the case of backbiting, seek out those you may have talked ill of and ask for forgiveness. Thereafter, one has to seek forgiveness from Allah.

Should all these steps be taken in all earnest and sincerity, then Allah is the Most Merciful and All forgiving.

Wa Minallaahit Tawfiq

Mustafa Jaffer

Bani Israel

QUESTION 1

I have a question about Bani Israel (The children of Israel). How come in the Qur'an it says that the Bani Israel were the chosen ones by God, that they were superior to any other humans on earth, yet, they did not follow the commands of Nabi Musa (AS). Could you please shed some light as to why they were considered the chosen ones?

ANSWER 1

I have personally found Allameh Tabatabai's explanation of this issue the must convincing one. In the volume one of his Tafsir under the Holy verse: " And thus we have made you a medium ummah (people) that you may be the bearers of witness to the people and (that) the Apostle may be a bearer witness to you..." (2:143),

First he discusses what it mean to be "bearers of witness" and explains that it involves knowledge of the unseen, intentions and so on. Then he argues that this is not something that ordinary people can be capable of. He concludes that this verse does not apply to all Muslims even not to majority of them, but rather a few people in Islamic Ummah are capable of doing so. These people bear witness to all other nations and prophet Mohammad (SA) bears witness to them. And this is the meaning of a medium Ummah. In other words, those who act as a medium between the Holy Prophet (SA) and other people are from Muslims, but not that all Muslims are medium and bearers of witness.

He then argues that the same is true about Bani Israel when Allah (SWT) says to them that "Children of Israel ...I have exalted you above the nations" (2:47; 2:122). This does not mean that every single individual among Bani Israel is superior to all others. This only means that exalted individuals come from them. Verse (6:86) also supports this interpretation for it says: "We gave him Isaac and Jacob...Among his descendants were David and Solomon, Job, and Joseph and Moses and Aaron; Zacharias and John, Jesus and Elias...; and Ishmael, Elisha, Jonah and Lot. All these WE EXALTED ABOVE NATIONS ..." As we see this "Fazl" (or exaltation) is given to certain individuals from Bani Israel and through them Allah (SWT) bestowed his blessing over children of Israel.

This is a very brief response and there are might be some other aspects which needs more time and space.

With Regards

Mohammad

Banking - Bonds - Finance

I would like to know if any of the following are haram with references from more than one source/marj'yyeh

QUESTION 1:

Is it haram to invest in bonds?

ANSWER 1:

Yes, because an agreement is made between the lender and the government that a fixed amount of interest will yield on the principal of the bonds. However, if no such condition is stated and with the understanding that you would not require the borrower to pay you interest, then in that case you can invest in such ventures and use the full amount of interest, if it is a bank of the unbelievers (kafir). If it is a Muslim bank, then you have to distribute half of the interest money to the poor and the other half belongs to you.

SOURCE: Ayat. Khu'i, Masa'ilah wa Rudud, p. 113

QUESTION 2:

Is it haram to be a loan officer?

ANSWER 2:

Yes. See the text of the fatwa below.

QUESTION 3:

Is it haram to charge interest to a customer on behalf of the financial institution if that is part of your job?

QUESTION 4:

Is it haram to work in a bank?(I am asking this again because Dr. Liyakat said it is ok but Dr. mavani gave a text from Seyyid
Fadhlullah {whose taqleed I do not follow by the way} saying that it is haram to work with riba under any circumstances?)

QUESTION 5:

Can you please specify which tasks if any are haram for someone to do that deal with riba?(I am asking the respected scholars to cite SPECIFIC TASKS,JOBS that are out there and nothing general?)

ANSWER TO QUESTIONS 3, 4 AND 5:

The following is the translation of the fatwa of Ayat. Khu'i from "Masa'ilah wa Rudud," p. 112.

Issue no. 319: Is it permissible to work in banks dealing with interest?

RESPONSE: In His Name, the Exalted. That is not permissible except if his work is not primarily linked to riba (interest) transactions like a sweeper [janitor], guard, driver and similar to them. And God
knows best.

On the issue of receiving interest, Ayat. Seestani's ruling is the same as Ayat. Khui. However, the former does not say in his resalah anything about working in banks that deal in interest. Most probably his opinion would be the same.

On the issue of riba, there is almost unanimity amongst the jurists because of explicit verses from the Quran that prohibit it.

wa bi-l-laahi-t-tawfiq,

Hamid Mavani

Beard

QUESTION 1

With reference to Question and Answer No. 115 in the book on Contemporary Legal Rulings in Shi'i Law (in accordance with the rulings (fatawa) of Ayatullah Al-Uzma Al-Seyyid 'Ali Al-Husayni Al-Seestani Dama-Dhilluhu) and translated into English by Br. Hamid Mawani sates:

Q. Some men shave their beard and leave some hair on the chin alone. Is this sufficient by the Shari'ah?

A. (It is not sufficient). FM, p.434. Does it mean that wearing beard on the chin only is not acceptable and by that defination a person would lose his adaalat?

ANSWER

My understanding of this Question is that it refers to people who shave the beard leaving only some hair on the chin i.e. when one sees the hair on the chin, one would not call it a beard.

However, if one leaves a proper beard on the chin (not just some hair), then this would suffice according to the shari'a. Thus one would not lose his 'adala

And Allah knows best

Liyakatali

Beard

QUESTION 2

The jews and christians believe that God created the heavens and earth in six days and on the seventh He rested.

The Qur'an refutes this belief and says that He does not get tired nor does He have need for rest or sleep.
The word Sabbath sounds very similar to the Arabic word Sabt which means rest, sleep. The jews and some christians observe the Sabbath to emulate the example of God on the seventh day.

But Islam is against that belief of the seventh day rest so why did Allah punish certain people for violating the Sabbath as mentioned in the Qur'an?

There is a verse I vaguely remember that I believe Ya'qoob made a promise of some sort to God about abstaining from certain things. Anyone recall the verse and remember if it pertains to the Sabbath?

Anyway this issue opens many doors of inquiry:

We know that if one does something without knowing that it is forbidden then Allah won't punish him/her - If Allah never required observation of Sabbath but the people somehow evolved to believe so and then Allah punishes them for violating it:

Does that mean that if someone believes that something is forbidden though it is not, but does that deed anyway, Allah may punish for doing that deed?

For example the shaving of the beard. Apparently most Maraaji' say that doing so should be avoided under obligatory percaution, but so many of us do it anyway. Lately it has been observed that some Maraaji' rule that it is not obligatory but highly recommended.

Now if it turns out on the day of Judgement that shaving the beard was in fact NOT forbidden but Mr. xyz believed that it Was forbidden and did it anyway, would he or could he be punished for that?

It appears to me that the case is in fact so because the intention of disobedience was present.

ANSWER 2

Please forgive me for the delay in responding to the above question.

You have referred to several statements in the Holy Qur'an like the six day concept, sabbath etc. which I am tempted to deal with at great length, but as your question relates to beard I will confine myself to that for the time being.

The mujtahid whose taqlid we may doing is the final authority on the matters he has given rulings upon. Where he has stated that something is ihtiyatan wajib (mandatory as a matter of precaution) then we are permitted to follow another mujtahid who may have given a different ruling. Fiqh is a matter which requires a certain measure of discipline. Where we have any doubt we can always refer the matter to our mujtahid. Both Ayatullah Khui and Ayatullah Seestani state the keeping of a beard is wajib. They have even provided for exceptional circumstances when one may shave his beard. Surely this should be enough for the muqallids of these two great fuqaha.

As to ignorance of the law, in some cases it may be an excuse. However, not in all cases where it is not difficult to find out what the law is. To seek knowledge of one's duties and the basic laws of fiqh is wajib.

I can not go into the question of whom Allah will or will not punish for infringements of His laws. He Himself says that we must not despair of His Mercy. If one has sinned against Allah then one should turn to Him in repentance and ensure that he does not commit the same sin repeatedly.

Please do not hesitate to pose to the Alim Network any supplementary question you may have.

With salaams and du'aas from a humble servant of Ahlul Bayt and their followers, and with a request to be remembered by you in your prayers.

Bashir Rahim

Beard

QUESTION 3

I am 19 yrs old .i am of taqlid of Ayatullah Ali al-Seestani. I used to have a full beard and i shaved, now i have just
beard on the chin.(by chin I mean the beard covers the chin completely and towards the moustache). My dad doesn't mind me having a full beard but my mother dosen't agree to it.

My question: is it okay to shave from a full beard to just some beard on the Chin.keeping in mind that the mother's acceptance is important in islam also.

Thank you

ANSWER 3

Salaamun 'alaykum,

The growth of the beard that you described (covering the chin) is sufficient. Having the full beard is not wajib.

Also, please note that on Shar'i issues, one has to fulfill what is incumbent even if the parents object to it.

With salaams,

Liyakatali Takim

Question 1

I am doing taqleed of Ayatullah Nasir Makaarim. In his risaalah he mentions that animals (other than the dog and pig of course) that are not slaughtered Islamically are haram to eat but are Tahir. Therefore leather products of non-Islamically slaughtered animals are tahir.

My question is if certain ingredients such as beef fat, because it is not najis, are present in a food product, is it permissible to eat?

Also, for example if a restaurant fries both fish and chicken in the same oil, and since that chicken is not najis but non-permissible to eat, are we allowed to eat the fish that is fried in that oil?

My question is addressed to Sayyid Muhammad Rizvi. Thank you.

Answer 1

The distincition between the status of hurmat and taharat of an animal not slaughtered Islamically has been discussed before on theoritical level but probably never expressed openly in a fatwa until now by Ayatullah Nasir Makarim.

Even in the light of the above distinction, if beef fat of a haram category is present in a food product, then that product is haram. For an animal food product to be halal, it must be slaughtered Islamically.

As for the fish fried in the same oil in which a haram but tahir chicken was fried, according to the above mentioned view of Ayatullah Makarim -- it should be permissible to eat that fish.

Yours in Islam,

Sayyid M. Rizvi

Beaf Fat

Question 2

Can you answer the above as per Ayatullah Seestani, particularly the issue of the mixing of oils.

ANSWER 2

The distinction made by Ayatullah Nasir Makarim between the taharat and the hurmat of an animal slaughtered in unIslamic manner is not accepted by Ayatullah Sistani. In the latter's view, a chicken, for example, slaughtered unIslamically is haram as well as najis. And so the fish fried in the same oil as the haram chicken would make the fish najis and haram. (See his Minhaju 's-Salihiyn under the discussion on "maytah" in the section of najasat.)

Yours in Islam,

Sayyid Muhammad Rizvi

Believer in Tahrif of Qur'an

QUESTION 1

I understand that the Shia faith clearly accepts the Quran as complete without additions or deletions. What is the position of a Shia person who believes that the Quran as we have it today is incomplete and that it used to have a Sura Wilaya and other such additions. Is this person, who otherwise has proper Shia beliefs, considered a non-muslim or just a sinner? If he is a scholar then are we allowed to refer to his books to gain knowledge?

ANSWER 2

Any one who believes that there has been an addition, omission or interpolation in the Qur'an is indeed misguided, and if he persists in that belief, he commits a sin by dishonouring the word of Allah.

Scholars of both Sunni and Shia schools have written about the change having occurred. They have been critically studied and their errors have been made manifest.

Asgharali M M Jaffer

QUESTION 1:

As-Salamualaikum,

My question concerns the new 'discoveries' about the Torah (5 books). I have heard some hype about a "Bible Code." I have seen it on TV and heard about at school. It claims that the 'original' Torah in Hebrew, if decoded properly, gives historic facts such as Yitzak Rabin's assasination. I am quite annoyed because I don't have any evidence to disprove this concept. What they do is connect the whole Torah together, and skip a set number of letters (Like every five letters, they pick that letter) and this forms a word, which they claim gives news of the future or the past events. My problem with this is that according to Islam, the Torah has been altered. If it has been altered, then how can it contain this 'code' still. Inshallah you can help me with this problem and may Allah help you continuously in your struggle in promoting the True Islam.

With that, please comment on the Islamic view of the Torah's preservation at the time before the Prophet, at the Prophet's time and after him up until the present age.

QUESTION 2:

Salam alaikum,

Brother, I have an inquiry concerning people who have some sort of powers. If we say that prophecies are miracles, then how can a man like Nostradamus have such prophecies. Does Islam have an explanation for things like this?

ANSWER:

Dear Br/Sr,

Salamun Alaykum. With regard to your question on the mathematical decoding
of Torah, I think the following points are helpful:

1. The creation of Allah (AWT) is full of mysteries. Human soul is the most gifted creature of the all. Human beings are multi-dimensional and can almost do anything, God permitting, if they put their mind and soul into it. Some use their power in the right path and some for the evil. In short, the power of human soul is mysterious and beyond comprehension. But we, people of modern era of science and empiricism, are socialized to discredit anything which is not verifiable through the narrow procedure of the modern science. "Science" is the boundary of our knowledge.

2. Mystical and mathematical decoding of texts, especially religious texts is nothing new. One can mention many classical poems and texts which are believed to hide a particular message beyond their appearances, which need to be decoded. The "Hurofiyoun" Movement (School of Letters) in Islam was based on the same idea. Some modern Muslims have adopted a similar approach to the Holy Qur'an using numbers, especially 19. Bahais have made similar claims about their texts. Now the question is "what is the value of such findings?"

3. In my opinion one can look at these findings in the following way:

4. As mentioned in point 1, the human soul is very mysterious and can be educated and trained to do almost anything, God permitting. Take the Qur'anic example of Pharaoh's astrologists and witches who predicted Moses' birth and his challenging of Pharaoh. Evil minds can also predict future events, God permitting. The difference between these acts of predictions and prophecy is that prophecy is accompanied with THE CLAIM TO THE PROPHET-HOOD. We believe no false prophet can perform any extra-ordinary act or predictions if he or she claims to be a prophet. Miracles are distinguished from other extra-ordinary act by this criterion, i.e. making the claim of prophet-hood. No person of moral authority performs extra-ordinary acts. As a rule, you can almost say that the more spiritual authority one has, the less he or she engages in extra-ordinary acts. Such people, do such acts only and only for some reasons God has permitted them to do so. But in case people with less or no moral authority God's permission is only granted by not preventing them doing such acts. In other words they are not ordered to do so, neither they are prevented. But a False Prophet, who makes a false claim of being a prophet, will be prevented from doing any extra-ordinary acts. If we study people who make predictions such Nostradamus, we see that either they are wrong in their predictions OR THEY HAVE MADE NO CLAIM TO PROPHET-HOOD.
   
   One historical example: An Astrologist came to Imam Sadiq (AS). Imam (AS) asked him what his profession was. He said he was an Astrologist and had knowledge of the unseen. Imam (AS) asked him if he knew of anyone who was at the same time everywhere in the universe. He said that he knew of no such person. Imam (AS) said "I am that person." He asked for some signs. Imam (AS) told him (the astrologist) where he was coming from, and when he wanted to leave his city, he went into his house to a secret hiding place. Imam (AS) asked him if anyone was with him at that place. He said "No." Imam (AS) told him that then he took a bag in which he kept his money and what exact amount of money was and how much he took for his trip
   and how much he left there. The man acknowledged the rightfulness of Imam Sadiq (AS). Then Imam (AS) told him if he was with him at his house and on his way, what would prevent him to be everywhere else. The astrologists, who saw Imam (AS) had more power than he and had a claim to moral and religious authority became a believer.

5. Finally, I like to mention that in case of Torah, our belief is that it has been distorted but it does not mean that all its words are altered. It is possible that some passage have remained unchanged. In that case, one may speak of prophecy if it can be shown that the prediction has really happened.

With Regards,

Mohammad

Birth

QUESTION:

I have been puzzled for quite a few years now regarding the evolution of mankind. My understanding was Nabi Adam had 2 sons. How did the whole human race evolve from there on?. And if he had daughthers, does that mean brother and sister consumed to have a child.

I am sure that there is rational explaination for the above that is in line with Islamic Teachings.

ANSWER:

According to most reports, Allah (SWT) sent some fairies in human form to the sons of Nabi Adam to help in the procreation process. And Allah knows better.

See Qisas al-Anbiya,

Stories from the Qur'an, Islamic Seminary; page 18

Jazaka Allah

Liyakatali Takim

Bismillah

QUESTION:

Assalamu alaikum

I am 15 years old and have been raised following Sunni interpretations of Islam without adhering to any particular madhab. I have done much research on Shi'i interpretations of Islam and I find them to be much more valid than the former. Therefore, I would like to ask whether or not 'bismillahir rahmanir raheem' is part of every surah, or just Suratul Fatiha? Is it necessary to recite it before Suratul Fatiha during salah. Could you please explain this using information from any hadith (Sunni or Shi'i) or any scholar.

ANSWER:

Wa Alaikum As-Salaam,

May Allah bless you and make you successful. Shi'ah scholars are virtually unanimous in their view that the Basmallah (i.e.
Bismillahir-Rahmanir-Raheem) is a part of every surah except Surah Taubah (Chapter 9). As a rule of prayer, Shi'ahs must recite it for that reason and to intentionally not recite it while it is known to be part of the Surah will invalidate the prayer.

Imam Ali (AS) was asked: "Is Bismillahir-Rahmanir-Raheem a part of the opening of the book (i.e. Surah Fatihah)? He (Imam Ali-AS) said: Yes. The Messenger of Allah (S) recited it and counted it as a verse (of the Surah)
and he says 'the opening of the Book is seven oft-repeated verses." (Wasaa`il Ash-Shi'ah, Vol. 6, pg. 59, No. 34511)

I hope that this suffices as an answer.

Was-Salaam.

Ali Rasheed

Black Magic

QUESTION:

HI, I WOULD LIKE TO KNOW WHAT THE PUNISHMENTS ARE IF A PERSON BELIEVESOR BECOMES A FAITHFUL FOLLOWER OF BLACK MAGIC, SORCERY AND CHARMS, DOESN'T MATTER GOOD OR BAD CHARMS, LIKE HAVING SOMETHING GIVEN TO YOU FOR PROTECTION FROM SO CALLED EVIL... AND IS THE PERSON WHO PRACTICES THIS THING, IS HE STILL A MUSLIM OR IS HE OUT OF ISLAM?? WHAT ARE THE PUNISMENTS FOR SOMEONE TO USE THIS SORCERY STUFF TO INTRUDE INTO SOMEONE
ELSES PERSONAL AFFAIRS?? IF THERE IS WRITTEN PROOF ON THIS SUBJECT MATTER, COULD YOU PLEASE MAIL THE DETAILS TO ME SO I COULD USE THIS TO HELP SOMEONE I REALLY CARE. THANK YOU.

ANSWER:

Black Magic etc. is haraam in Islam. It is haraam to practise it and forbidden to believe in it.

To seek protection from such charms is a kind of SHIRK, which means a very grave sin. And to use it to harm others to intrude into the affairs of others is haraam and if there is an Islamic government, such a person will be punished according to Shariah.

Asgharali M.M. Jaffer

Black Shoes

QUESTION:

Long time ago we received a Shari ruling about not wearing black shoes, I got a lot of phone calls and messages about that issue and the question is what is the reason why Muslims can not wear black shoes, I need a strong answer because many brothers are asking , why? Please answer in reference to the Qur'an.

ANSWER:

Wearing black shoes is not haram. In the books of akhlaaqiyaat (i.e. morals and ethics) there are directives from the ahadith which indicate that to put on black shoes is makrooh - that is unworthy - or something better to avoid.

Salaams,

Mulla Asgher

Black Shoe & Tie

QUESTION:

Is wearing black shoes makrooh ?

Is wearing ties makrooh ?

Taqleed of Ayat Seestani

ANSWER:

1. It is Makruh to wear black shoes, but remember, it is not Haram. I do not think this is a serious matter on which one should be that much concerned.

2. Wearing of ties is not Makruh. It could have been Makruh when it was used as a symbol of the cross by the Christians. But now no-one relates it to the Christian symbol.

Sayyid Muhammad Rizvi

Bleeding in Salaat

QUESTION:

This question should be answered by the rulings of Ayatullah Seestani and Marhum Ayatullah Golpaygani.
The blood that comes out of the nose is tahir, but if while one is praying, one's nose bleeds and it comes onto the clothing, is the clothing still tahir?

This part of clothing is one of the necessities - for example it is the chador for the woman in Salat. Is the masalah different if the amount of blood is less that one dirham or more that one dirham?

ANSWER:

Salaamun 'Alaykum,

Please note that only that blood which is discharged from a wound or sore on the body is allowed in prayer. However, if the body or dress is stained from a wound within the mouth or nose then he/she can offer prayers despite the blood.

In addition, if the body or dress (regardless of whether the dress is one of the necessities or not) is stained with blood that is spread over a space which is less than one dirham (almost equal to the upper joint of the thumb) then the prayer with that amount of blood is valid.

Please note that praying with clothes which have blood from hayz, nifas or istihadha is not allowed even if the amount of blood on the body or dress is less than the size of one dirham.

See Islamic Laws pg. 163-4

Iltimase du'a

Liyakatali

Blood Fertilizer

QUESTION:

Is there a problem eating vegetables grown without chemical fertilizer (Biological label). It means that generally the chemicals are replaced by a dryed blood coumpound which is used as a fertilizer. The powdered blood is sprinkled on the floor some month before the crop and is made of animal blood (of course not slaughtered islamically and of course may contain pig blood also). Please can you give me the rulings about this matter ?

I am a follower of Seyyed Sistani (may he live long).

ANSWER:

There is no harm in eating vegetables or fruits grown in the method you described. Fertilizers have generally been known to contain animal refuse, but the process of fertilizing does not necessarily transfer the najasat.

With Salaams and Duas

Mustafa

Bowing in Karate

QUESTION 1

Q1. When the name of one of the Fourteen Ma'sumeen (a.s.) is mentioned, what kind of show of respect is appropriate and permissible:

• only in our heart and mind?
• in our heart as well as by bowing down of the head from the neck?
• in our heart as well as by bowing down of the upper body from the waist?

A1. In the name of the Almighty. All these expressions of respect is permissible. However, it is better (ihtiyat) to refrain from bowing down from the waist (like ruku) for other than Almighty Allah.

Q2. In some sports like Judo, Karate, Sword..., it is necessary to bow your head or bow the upper body from the waist as a sign of respect for the trainer or the audience. In such kind of bowing, there is not intention of worship. Is these kind of expression of respect permissible?

A2. It is permissible; but adherence to the ihtiyat mentioned above is better.

Allah knows the best.

25 Sha`ban 1417
Ali al-Husayni As-Sistani

Burial & Guideline

In response to some questions raised about the previous answer to the question of burial, below you will find Dr. Takim's response and source of his previous answer.

At this point, I would like to clarify the following with respect to questions submitted to the ABDG-A and the answers provided therein:

1. The question may specify the Mujtahid according to whom a response is requested, but if no Mujtahid is specified, the Aalim may assume a ruling is requested according to the most widely followed Mujtahid (currently Ayatullah Seestani). Where a difference in opinion exist between the Marjah, Aalims will try to provide different opinions.

2. 'Aalims will also endeavour to provide sources and references to their answer in the future.
   
   I hope this clarifies the issue. We are endeavouring to provide a valuable reference and knowledge base, but this is the first of a kind project, and we ask you to bear with us and send us your suggestions as we work together to make this is a worthwhile venture.

Thank you.

Wasalaam,

Mustafa Rawji
Acting Moderator, ABDG-A

HERE IS DR. TAKIM'S REPLY:

Salaamun Alaykum,

Before replying to the issue, I would like to state the following:

When the ABDG-A was in the process of being formed, I was specifically told that unless requested otherwise, only the fatawa of Ayatullah Seestani or Khu'i should be cited. This is because the majority of us do their taqlid. However, if the questioner wants the fatawa of other maraji' he or she should specify so.

I was also told that it was not necessary to cite the sources unless asked to do so by the questioner. Please understand that I was not trying to avoid the question or 'beat about the bush', I was merely following the procedures laid down which, of course, can always be altered.

The questioner merely wanted to know whether it was permitted to bury things with a dead body or not. Hence, I answered briefly. However, I shall be more elaborate in the future, insha-allah.

As for the fatwa on burying things with a dead body, Ayat. Seestani states that "If the dead person has made a will that a certain supplication or the holy Qur'an or a ring be buried along with his dead body, and if that will is valid, the the grave cannot be opened up to bring those articles out". Islamic laws, art. #650.

This implies that one has to honour the wishes of the dead person as prescribed in the will provided of course they do not violate the shari'a. Should there be any further questions to this, please do let me know.

May Allah guide us all, Amin
Liyakatali-

Buying Stocks

QUESTION:

Is buying company stock Halal? Is it dependant on the type of business that the company is engaged in. Please reply according to Ayat.Seestani.

ANSWER:

Buying company stock is halal in itself. However, secondary reasons could make it haram: for example, if the company deals in alcoholic drinks or gambling, then it will be haram because of the haram commodity in which that company is involved.

Sayyid M. Rizvi

Moderator's Note - The masail of Ayat. Seestani on Buying and Selling Shares is reproduced below:

Q: What about buying and selling the shares of incorporated companies or others?

A: It is permissible to buy and sell shares of any kind of corporation on the condition that the transactions of this company do not engage in prohibited activities such as dealing in intoxicants or interest (riba).

(Ayat. Seestani, Al-Fatawa al-Muyassarah, p. 408, in Contemporary
Legal Rulings in Shi'i Law (p.28), tr. Hamid Mavani (1996))].